Saquon Barkley is poised to become a free agent, and with ample cap space, the New England Patriots are eyeing the possibility of acquiring the two-time Pro Bowl running back.

The New York Giants are unlikely to utilize the franchise tag on the 27-year-old, signaling a probable departure from the team. While the Giants could still make an offer to retain Barkley, it appears increasingly likely that he will explore his options in free agency.

According to sources cited by Pat Leonard of the New York Daily News, the Patriots, along with the Baltimore Ravens, Las Vegas Raiders, Chicago Bears, Houston Texans, and Philadelphia Eagles, are considered primary contenders to pursue Barkley.

These teams possess both the financial means and the need for a player of Barkley’s caliber.

With the recent release of J.C. Jackson, the Patriots are expected to have considerable cap space, estimated to be over $100 million. However, the market value for running backs has generally decreased over time, barring exceptions such as Christian McCaffrey.

Additionally, Barkley will face competition from other notable free agent running backs like Derrick Henry, Austin Ekeler, and Josh Jacobs.

Spotrac projects Barkley’s market value to land him a three-year, $29.9 million contract, positioning him as one of the league’s highest-paid running backs.

With Rhamondre Stevenson entering the final year of his contract, the Patriots could opt to bolster their offensive arsenal by signing Saquon Barkley, creating a formidable one-two punch in the running game.

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